Can a country has absolute advantage in producing two goods referring to the ricardian model?

while it has comparative advantage only in one good.

Answer:
It is the comparative advantages that matter not the absolute advantages. And think in terms of opportunity cost.
this occurs in the ricardian model because both countries benefit from specialization in the production of a specific good. it may seem like the country with absolute advantage in both goods would be made worse-off by importing goods, but according to economic theory, it benefits from getting a higher price for the good it has a comparative advantage in (and therefore exports) and a lower price for the good where the other country has a comparative advantage

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